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Showing posts with label Civil Service Examination. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Civil Service Examination. Show all posts
Thursday, May 8, 2014
Civil Services Examination (Prelims) to be held on 24 August 2014
>> The Union Public Service
Commission (UPSC) will conduct its most coveted Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination for this year on 24 August 2014.
>> The prestigious Civil Services
Examination is conducted annually to select officers for Indian Administrative
Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS) and Indian Police Service (IPS),
among others.
>> The UPSC has sought various
ministries assistance to spare some officers under them who can be deputed as
Assistant Supervisors and Invigilators for the exam.
>> "The Civil Services
(Preliminary) Examination, 2014 will be conducted by the Commission on August
24, 2014. Out of over ten lakh candidates expected to apply for this
examination, more than one lakh candidates are anticipated to opt for Delhi as
their centre of examination," the UPSC said in a letter to the Department
of Personnel and Training (DoPT).
>> For this purpose, about 250
sub-centres will be required.
>> "The Commission would be
requesting various ministries or departments of Government of India, including
their attached and subordinate offices in Delhi, to spare the services of the
requisite number of Group 'A' and Group 'B' officers, for performing the duties
of Assistant Supervisors and Invigilators, in the aforesaid exam," it
said.
>> The officers thus deputed to the
Commission will be paid honorarium by the UPSC for their services, the letter
added.
>> The Civil Services Examination is
conducted in three stages--preliminary, mains and interview. According to a
tentative time table, the Civil Services (mains) Examination, 2014 are slated
to be held on December 14.
Saturday, April 5, 2014
UPSC: Civil Services Mains 2013 Interview Schedule
For candidates appearing for UPSC civil
services mains 2013 second interview. Candidates can view the date and session
of their interview, according to their name and roll number, on the UPSC
website. Reporting time for the forenoon session is 9:00 AM and for the
afternoon session is 1:00 PM.
See UPSC Civil Services Mains 2013
Interview Schedule: Click Here
Thursday, March 13, 2014
Civil Services (Main) Examination 2013- Result Declared
On the basis of the results of the Civil
Services (Main) Examination, 2013 held by the Union Public Service Commission
in December, 2013, the candidates with the under mentioned Roll Numbers have
qualified for Personality Test for selection to the Indian Administrative
Service, Indian Foreign Service, Indian Police Service and other Central
Services (Group ‘A’ and Group ‘B’).
2. Candidature of these candidates is
provisional subject to their being found eligible in all respects. The
candidates will be required to produce the original certificates in support of
their claims pertaining to age, educational qualifications, community, physical
handicap and other documents such as Questionnaire, Attestation Form and TA
Form, etc. at the time of their Personality Test. The formats of SC/ST/OBC and
PH certificates and Questionnaire, Attestation Form and TA Form, etc. can be
downloaded from the website of the Commission. They are, therefore, advised to
keep the said documents ready with them.
3. Personality Test of these candidates is
likely to commence from 7th April, 2014. Personality Tests will be held in the
Office of the Union Public Service Commission at Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road,
New Delhi-110069. The date and time of Personality Test is being intimated to
the qualified candidates individually. The date and time of Personality Test of
candidates being called for Personality Test will be displayed on the
Commission’s Website http://www.upsc.gov.in. The candidates who do not receive
communication regarding their Personality Test, should immediately contact the
office of the Commission through letter or on Phone Nos. 011-23385271,
011-23381125, 011-23098543 or Fax No. 011-23387310, 011-23384472.
4. No request for change in the date and
time of the Personality Test intimated to the candidates will be entertained.
5. The candidates are advised to notify
changes in their address, if any, to the Commission immediately through letter
or Fax at Telephone numbers indicated above.
6. The marks sheets of candidates who have
not qualified, will be put on the Commission’s Website within 15 days from the
date of publication of the final result (after conducting Personality Test) and
will remain available on the Website for a period of 60 days.
7. In terms of Hon’ble CAT directions, the
result of one candidate (Roll No.190192) has been withheld and shall be kept in
sealed cover subject to the outcome of the O.A.
View Result: Click Here
Tuesday, March 4, 2014
Clarification on fresh attempts and age relaxation in Civil Services Examination
Friends...As you are aware recently
Government has announced relaxation in age and number of attempts for appearing
in the Civil Service Examination. Now the Department of Personnel &
Training has issued orders in this regard and the same is as follows:
View Official Order: Click Here
Monday, February 10, 2014
Two More Attempts for UPSC's Civil Services Exams- Good news for lakhs of Civil Services Aspirants
>> In a good news for lakhs of civil
services aspirants, the government on Monday decided to give two additional
attempts to all categories of candidates of the prestigious exam conducted by
Union Public Service Commission.
>> "The central government has
approved two additional attempts to all categories of candidates with effect
from Civil Services Examination 2014, with consequential age relaxation of
maximum age for all categories of candidates, if required," the Ministry
of Personnel said in an order.
>>The Civil Services Examination
(Preliminary), 2014 is tentatively scheduled to be held on August 24, this
year.
>>The Civil Service Examinations is
conducted by the UPSC to select Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian
Police Service (IPS) and Indian Foreign Service (IFS) among others.
>> The examinations is conducted in
three stages-- preliminary, mains and interview.
>> A candidate is permitted a maximum
of four attempts for the examination. However, there is no restriction on
number of attempts by a candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes (SCs) and
Scheduled Tribes (STs).
>> As many as seven attempts are
permissible to an aspirant belonging to Other Backward Classes (OBCs),
according to a notification issued for Civil Services Examinations, 2013.
>> A candidate who has attained the
age of 21 years but not attained 30 years may apply for the civil services
examination, as per eligibility mentioned in the notification.
>> The upper age limit is relaxable
up to a maximum of five years for candidates belonging to SCs or STs categories
and up to a maximum of three years for candidates of OBC category among
others.
>> The upper age limit is also
relaxable upto a maximum of five years if a candidate had ordinarily been
domiciled in Jammu & Kashmir during January 1, 1980 to December 31,
1989.
>> It can also be relaxed upto a
maximum of three years in the case of defence services personnel disabled in
operations during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area
and released as a consequence thereof.
>> There is also a relaxation in
upper age upto a maximum of 10 years in the case of blind, deaf-mute and
orthopaedically handicapped candidates besides other categories, the rules
said.
Wednesday, August 28, 2013
Civil Services Mains Examination 2013 from December 1
28.8.13
Civil Service Examination, Competitive Exams, Exam Notification, Exam Schedules, UPSC
No comments
Civil Services Mains Examination
2013 from December 1
Last Date for Online Applications is September 10
Civil
Services Mains Examination 2013 is going to be held from December 1. The exam will be held for five days. There will be eight compulsory papers and one
optional. Candidate who qualified in the
prelims exam can submit their online applications before September 10.
Civil Service Main
Exam 2013 will be held from December 1, 2013.
Candidates who cleared the preliminary examination papers that were held
in May this year are eligible to apply for the mains exam. Civil Services Main exam 2013 will be held
for five days from 1st to 5th December.
The test will be conducted in 19 centres located all across India.
The centres in
which Civil services main examination will be held are Ahmadabad, Allahabad, Bangalore,
Bhopal, Chandigarh, Chennai, Cuttack, Delhi, Dispur, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jammu,
Kolkatta, Lucknow, Mumbai, Patna, Shillong, Shimla and Tiruvananthapuram.
Candidates who want
to appear for Civil Services Main Examination will have to apply to ‘Under Secretary
(CSM), Union Public Service Commission, Dholpur House, shahjahan Road, New
Delhi – 110069. They should submit the
online application and then send the printout of the application to the above
address. All the necessary documents
should be enclosed. Fee that has to be
paid for general candidates is Rs. 200.
This should be paid through central recruitment fee stamps which are available
at the post offices. The stamps have to
be affixed on the application form.
There is no need to pay the fee by SC/ST candidates and also female
candidates. Civil Services Main Exam will be conducted for five days. There
will be eight compulsory papers and one optional. Nearly 16,000 candidates qualified in the
preliminary exam that was conducted in May, 2013. These candidates have to re-apply for the civil
services mains examination 2013. The applications will be available on the
official website. Online applications
are open from 20th August and the last date for applying is September 10. Exam will be conducted on December 1. Printout of the online application should
reach the above mentioned address before 18th September, 2013. The envelope that contains the application
should have ‘Application for Civil Services (Main Examination 2013) written on
it.
Saturday, August 17, 2013
Indian Economic Service/ Indian Statistical Service Examination 2013 Notified by UPSC
17.8.13
Civil Service Examination, Competitive Exams, Latest Job, Recruitment News, SSC Examinations
No comments
UPSC Notified Indian Economic Service/ Indian Statistical
Service Examination 2013
Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) notified
Combined Competitive Examination 2013 for Recruitment to Grade IV Posts of the
Indian Economic Service and Indian Statistical Service.
How to Apply
The candidates eligible for the posts may
APPLY ONLINE through UPSC’s website at www.upsconline.nic.in on or before 16
September 2013.
Important Dates
Last Date for submission of Online
Application: 16 September 2013
Tentative Date of Examination: 09 November 2013
Qualification
A candidate for the Indian Economic Service
must have obtained a Postgraduate degree in Economics/ Applied Economics/
Business Economics/ Econometrics and a candidate for the Indian Statistical
Service must have obtained a Post-Graduate degree in Statistics/ Mathematical
Statistics/ Applied Statistics from a University incorporated by an Act of the
Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutes established
by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section
3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, or a foreign university
approved by the Central Govt. from time to time.
Vacancy/Examination Details
Name/Type of the Post: Grade IV Posts
Total No. of the Posts: 66
Name of the Services to which Recruitment
is to be made based on this Exam:
Indian Economic Service -- 30
Indian Statistical Service – 36
Fee:- Rs. 200/- (Except
Female/SC/ST/PH Candidates)
Saturday, August 3, 2013
Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2013- Result Announced
Civil
Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2013- Result Announced
Union
Public Service Commission (UPSC) declared IAS Prelims (Civil Services
Preliminary) 2013 result on 2 August 2013. IAS Prelims exam was conducted on 26
May 2013. The successful candidates in the IAS Prelims have to appear at the
main written examination. The main written exam will be conducted by UPSC from
1 December 2013. Last date of receiving application by UPSC for IAS main
written exam is 18 September 2013.
The candidature of these candidates is
provisional. In accordance with the Rules of the Examination, all these
candidates have to apply again in the Detailed Application Form DAF (CSM), for
CS(Main) Examination, 2013 which would be available on the website of the Union
Public Service Commission www.upsc.gov.in. All the qualified candidates are
advised to fill up the DAF (CSM) and submit the same ONLINE for admission to
the Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2013 to be held from 1st December 2013.
The DAF (CSM) will be available on the website of the Commission from 20th
August, 2013 till 11.59 PM on 10th September 2013. Important instructions regarding filling up
of the DAF (CSM) and submitting the same ONLINE to the Commission would also be
available on the website. The candidates who have been declared successful have
to first get themselves registered on the relevant page of the website before
filling up the ONLINE Detailed Application Form. The qualified candidates are
further advised to refer to the Rules of the Civil Services Examination, 2013
published in the gazette of India (Extraordinary) of Department of Personnel
and Training notification dated 05.03.2013, which is also available on the
website of the Commission.
After submitting the DAF (CSM) duly filled in ONLINE, the candidates are
required to take out a print out of the finally submitted DAF (CSM) separately
and will have to send the printed copy of the DAF (CSM) duly signed by the
candidates alongwith all relevant documents including the prescribed fees,
wherever applicable as enclosures addressed to the Under Secretary
[CS(M)], Union Public Service
Commission, Dholpur House, Shahjahan Road, New Delhi-110069, so as to reach the
Commission's Office latest by 18th September 2013. The envelope containing the
print out of the DAF (CSM) submitted ONLINE should be superscribed “Application
for Civil Services (Main) Examination, 2013”. It can also be delivered at Union
Public Service Commission counter by hand till 18th September 2013 (5.00
P.M). It may be noted that mere
submission of application form does not, ipso facto, confer on any right for
admission to the Main Examination.
The admission certificate alongwith the time table of the Main
Examination will be uploaded on the Commission’s website to the eligible
candidates 2-3 weeks before the commencement of the examination. Changes, if any, in the postal address after
submission of the DAF (CSM) may be communicated to the Commission at once.
Candidates
are also informed that marks, cut off marks and answer keys of Civil Services (Preliminary)
Examination 2013 will be provided to them only after entire process of the
Civil Services Examination is over i.e. after the declaration of final
result. No application under RTI act,
2005 or otherwise will be entertained in this regard.
The Union Public Service Commission have a
Facilitation Counter near the Examination Hall Building in its Campus. Candidates may obtain any
information/clarification regarding their result of the above mentioned
examination on all working days between 10.00 AM to 5.00 PM, in person or on
Tel. No. 011-23385271, 011-23098543 or 011-23381125 from this Facilitation
Counter. Candidates can also obtain
information regarding their result by accessing Union Public Service Commission
Website www.upsc.gov.in.
Saturday, June 1, 2013
Solved Question Paper of Civil Services Exam Prelims 2013: Paper 1
1.6.13
Civil Service Examination, Competitive Exams, India, Previous Questions, Question Papers
1 comment
Solved Question Paper of Civil
Services Prelims 2013: Paper 1
Civil
Services Exam Prelims 2013 was conducted by UPSC on 26 May 2013. The exam has 2
papers Paper 1 and paper 2(CSAT). Paper-1 has 100 Questions and is objective.
Here are the solved questions….will help as a model for IAS Aspirants as
well!!!!
1. What will follow if a
Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sahbha?
(A) The Lok Sabha may still proceed
with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
(B) The Lock Sabha cannot consider
the Bill further
(C) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill
to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(D) The President may call a joint
sitting for passing the Bill
Ans. D
2. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(A) In India, the same person cannot
be appointed as Governor for two or more States
at the same time
(B) The Judges of the High Court of
the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the state just as the
Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(C) No procedure has been laid down
in the Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post
(D) In the case of a Union Territory
having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the
basis of majority support
Ans. C
3. Which one of the following
pairs is correctly matched?
Geographical Region Feature
(A) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
(B) Atlas Mountains : North-Western
Africa
(C) Guiana Highlands : South-Western
Africa
(D) Okavango Basin : Patagonia
Ans. C
4. With reference to the
history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the
following statements:
1. The canves at Badami are the
oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2. The Barabar rock-cut caves wre
originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor
Chandragupta Maurya.
3. At Ellora, caves were made for
different faiths.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 3
only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
5. Recombinant DNA technology
(Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be
transferred
1. across different species of plants
2. from animals to plants
3. from microorganisms to higher
organisms
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and
3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
6. The Chinese traveler Yuan
Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded
the general conditions and
culture of India at that time. In this context, which of
the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The roads and river-routes were
completely immune from robbery.
2. As regards punishment for
offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the
instruments for determining the
innocence or guilt of a person.
3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at
ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
1. 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and
3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
7. Consider the following:
1. Star tortoise
2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog
4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally
found in India?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 and 4
Ans. A
8. Which of the following can
be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some
parts of India?
1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol
3. Formaldehyde
4. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2, 4 and 5 only
(C) 1, 3 and 5 only (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5
Ans. C
9. With reference to Indian
History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly
from the Provinces were
(A) directly elected by the people of
those provinces
(B) nominated by the Indian National
Congress and the Muslim League
(C) elected by the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies
(D) selected by the Government for
their expertise in constitutional matters
Ans. C
10. Consider the following
animals
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are
mammal/mammals?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and
3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
11. Consider the following
statements:
1. An amendment to the Constitution
of India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok
Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make
changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the
amendment also requires to be
ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and
2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. D
12. Consider the following
statements:
Attorney General of India can
1. take part in the proceedings of
the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the
Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3 only
Ans. C
13. With reference to the
usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of
the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Bagasse can be used as biomass
fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the
feed stocks for the production of synthetic
chemical
fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the
production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D)
1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
14. Variations in the length
of daytime and nighttime from season to season are
due to
(A) the earth’s rotation on its axis
(B) the earth’s revolution round the
sun in an elliptical manner
(C) latitudinal position of the place
(D) revolution of the earth on a
tilted axis
Ans. D
15. The Narmada river flows
to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers
flow to the east. Why?
1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
2. It flows between the Vindhyas and
the Satpuras.
3. The land slopes to the west from
central India.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D)
None
Ans. A
16. On the planet earth, most
of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out
of the remaining freshwater,
the largest proportion
(A) is found in atmosphere as
moisture and clouds
(B) is found in freshwater lakes and
rivers
(C) exists as groundwater
(D) exists as soil moisture
Ans. C
17. Consider the following
pairs:
1. Nokrek Bio-Sphere Reserve : Garo
Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail
Range
3. Namdapha National Park : Deafla
Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2
and 3 (D) None
Ans. A
18. Consider the following:
1. Electromagnetic radiation
2. Geothermal energy
3. Gravitational force
4. Plate movements
5. Rotation of the earth
6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible
for bringing dynamic changes in the surface of the
earth?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (B) 1, 3, 5
and 6 only
(C) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (D) 1, 2, 3,
4, 5 and 6
Ans. C
19. Which of the following
bodies does not/do not find mention in the
Constitution?
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
20. The demand for the
Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(A) the reduction of the share of the
landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(B) the grant of ownership of land to
peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the
land
(C) the uprooting of zamindari system
and the end of serfdom
(D) writing off all peasant debts
Ans. A
21. The Parliament can make
any law for whole or any part of India for
implementing international
treaties
(A) with the consent of all the
states
(B) with the consent of the majority
of States
(C) with the consent of the States
concerned
(D) without the consent of any State
Ans. D
22. In the grasslands, trees
do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological
succession because of
(A) insects and fungi
(B) limited sunlight and paucity of
nutrients
(C) water limits and fire
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
23. Which one of the
following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order
of decreasing productivity?
(A) Oceans, lakes, grasslands,
mangroves
(B) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands,
lakes
(C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes,
oceans
(D) Oceans, mangroves, lakes,
grasslands
Ans. C
24. Contour bunding is a
method of conservation used in
(A) desert margins, liable to strong
wind action
(B) low flat plains, close to stream
courses, liable to flooding
(C) scrublands, liable to spread of
weed growth
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
25. The Government enacted
the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA)
Act in 1996. Which one of the
following is not identified as its objective?
(A) To provide self-governance
(B) To recognize traditional rights
(C) To create autonomous regions in
tribal areas
(D) To free tribal people from
exploitation
Ans. C
26. Under the Scheduled
Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers [Recognition of Forest Rights]
Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the
process for determining the
nature and extent of individual or community forest
rights or both?
(A) State Forest Department
(B) District Collector/Deputy
Commissioner
(C) Tahsildar/Block Development
Officer /Mandal Revenue Officer
(D) Gram Sabha
Ans. D
27. Improper handling and
storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the
production of toxins known as
aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by
normal cooking process.
Aflatoxins are produced by
(A) bacteria (B) protozoa (C) moulds (D)
viruses
Ans. C
28. ‘Economic Justice’ as one
of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been
provided in
(A) the Preamble and the Fundamental
Rights
(B) the Preamble and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
(C) the Fundamental rights and the
Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) None of the above
Ans. B
29. Due to
improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their
parts, which of the following
are released into the environment as e-waste?
1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium
4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonium
Select the correct answer using codes
given below.
(A) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (B) 1, 2,
3, 5 and 6 only
(C) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (D) 1, 2, 3,
4, 5, 6 and 7
Ans. B
30. Acid rain is caused by
the pollution of environment by
(A) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(B) carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide
(C) ozone and carbon dioxide
(D) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Ans. D
31. With reference to food
chains. In ecosystems, consider the following
statements:
1. A food chain illustrates the order
in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the
populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the
numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1, 2
and 3 (D) None
Ans. A
32. Consider the following
pairs:
National Park River flowing
through the Park
1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
3. Silent Valley National Park :
Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 only (C) 1 and 3 (D)
None
Ans. D
33. Consider the following
organisms:
1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as
biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only (C) 2 and 3 (D)
3 only
Ans. C
34. Which of the following
adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1. Excretion of urea by animals
2. Burning of coal by man
3. Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (2) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and
3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
35. In which of the following
States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural
habitat?
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala
3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. A
36. Some Buddhist rock-cut
caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called
Viharas. What is the
difference between the two?
(A) Vihara is a place of worship,
while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(B) Chaitya is a place of worship,
while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(C) Chaitya is the stupa at the far
end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it.
(D) There is no material difference
between the two
Ans. B
37. Which one of the
following describes best the concept of Nirvana in
Buddhism?
(A) The extinction of the flame of
desire.
(B) The complete annihilation of
self.
(C) A state of bliss and ret
(D) A mental stage beyond all
comprehension
Ans. A
38. According to the
Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental
for the governance of the
country?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of State
Policy
(D) Fundamental Rights and
Fundamental Duties
Ans. C
39. The people of India
agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because
(A) Indians never wanted the review
of the working of the Act of 1919
(B) Simon Commission recommended the
abolition of Darchy (Diarchy) in the
Provinces
(C) there was no Indian member in the
Simon Commission
(D) the Simon Commission suggested
the partition of the country
Ans. C
40. Quit India Movement was
lunched in response to
(A) Cabinet Mission plan
(B) Cripps Proposals
(C) Simon Commission Report
(D) Wavell Plan
Ans. B
41. The balance of payments
of a country is a systematic record of
(A) all import and export
transactions of a country during a given period of time,
normally a year
(B) goods exported from a country
during a year
(C) economic transaction between the
government of one country to another
(D) capital movements from one
country to another
Ans. A
42. The Reserve Bank of India
regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1. liquidity of assets
2. branch expansion
3. merger of banks
4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 4 only (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. D
43. An increase in the Bank
Rate generally indicates that the
(A) market rate of interest is likely
to fall
(B) Central Bank is no longer making
loans to commercial banks
(C) Central Bank is following an easy
money policy
(D) Central Bank is following a tight
money policy
Ans. D
44. In India, deficit
financing is used for raising resources for
(A) economic development
(B) redemption of public debt
(C) adjusting the balance of payments
(D) reducing the foreign debt
Ans. A
45. Which of the following
characterizes/characterize the people of Indus Valley
Civilization?
1. They possessed great palaces and
temples.
2. They worshipped both male and
female deities.
3. They employed horse-drawn chariots
in warfare.
Select the correct
statement/statements using the codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the
statements given above is correct
Ans. B
46. Which of the following
diseases can be transmitted from one person to
another through tattooing?
1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3.
HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
47. Which of the following
statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1. The surest way of annihilating
Karma is to practice penance.
2. Every objects, even the smallest
particle has a soul.
3. Karma is the bane of the soul and
must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
48. Which one of the
following terms describes not only the physical space
occupied by an organism, but
also its functional role in the community of
organisms?
(A) Ecotone (B) Ecological niche
(C) Habitat (D) Home range
Ans. B
49. Photochemical smong is a
resultant of the reaction among.
(A) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate
in the presence of sunlight
(B) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate
in the presence of sunlight
(C) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low
temperature
(D) high concentration of NO2, O3 and
CO in the evening
Ans. A
50. Consider the following
minerals:
1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are
required by human body for the
concentration of muscles?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and
3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
51. Consider the following
statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public
Accounts
1. consists of not more than 25
Members of the Lok Sabha
2. scrutinizes appropriation and
finance accounts of the Government
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3. examines the report of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
52. Consider the following
Bhakti Saints :
1. Dadu Dayal 2. Guru Nanak 3.
Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were
preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur look
over?
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2
Ans. B
53. With reference to the
food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds
of organism is / are known as
decomposer organism / organisms?
1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
54. The most important
fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions
where
(A) warm and cold atmospheric
currents meet
(B) rivers drain out large amounts of
freshwater into the sea
(C) warm and cold oceanic currents
meet
(D) continental shelf is undulating
Ans. C
55. Which of the following is
/ are unique characteristic / characteristics of
equatorial forests?
1. Presence of tall closely set trees
with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2. Coexistence of a large number of
species
3. Presence of numerous varieties of
epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
56. Which of the following
constitute Capital Account?
1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. B
57. Consider the following
historical places:
1. Ajanta Caves
2. Lepakshi Temple
3. Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is / are
also known for mural paintings?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None
Ans. B
58. With reference to the
history of philosophical thought in India, consider the
following statements
regarding Sankhya school :
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory
of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is the self
– knowledge the leads to liberation and not any
exterior influence
or agent.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. D
59. In the context of India,
which of the following principles is / are implied
institutionally in the
parliamentary government?
1. Member of the Cabinet are Members
of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till
they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of
the State.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
60. The annual range of
temperature in the interior of the continents is high as
compared to coastal areas.
What is / are the reason / reasons?
1. Thermal difference between land
and water
2. Variation in altitude between
continents and oceans
3. Presence of strong winds in the
interior
4. Heavy rains in the interior as
compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. A
61. Which of the following is
/ are the characteristic / characteristics of Indian
coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
62. Which of the following
statements regarding Iaterite soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red is colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and
potash.
3. They are well – developed is
Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well
on these soils
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 only
Ans. C
63. Consider the following
statements :
1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana
beds.
2. Mica occurs in abundance in
Kodarma.
3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 (D) None
Ans. A
64. Consider the following
crops :
1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4.
Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. C
65. Climate is extreme,
rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic
herders.
The above statement best describes
which of the following regions?
(A) African Savannah (B) Central
Asian Steppe
(C) North American Prairie (D)
Siberian Tundra
Ans. D
66. Consider the following
statements :
1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond –
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A
67. Disguised unemployment
generally means
(A) large number of people remain
unemployed
(B) alternative employment is not
available
(C) marginal productivity of labour
is zero
(D) productivity of workers is low
Ans. C
68. Consider the following
statements :
1. The council of Ministers in the
Centre shall be collectively responsible to the
Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the
office during the pleasure of the President of
India.
3. The Prime Minister shall
communicate to the President about the proposals for
legislation.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
69. Consider the following
statements :
1. National Development Council is an
organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning
is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution
List in the
Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India
prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of
preparation
of place for economic development and
social justice.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
70. Consider the following
statements :
1. The Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of
that House.
2. While the nominated members of the
two Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the
presidential election, they have the
right to vote in the election of the Vice President
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. B
71. With reference to
National Legal Services Authority, consider the following
statements :
1. Its objective is to provide free
and competent legal services to the weaker sections of
the society
on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State
Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal
programmes
and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above
is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
72. During a thunderstorm,
the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in
the sky
2. lightning that separates the
minbus clouds
3. violent upward movement of air and
water particles
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3 (D) None of the above
produces the thunder
Ans. D
73. Consider the following
pairs :
Tribe State
1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
2. Karbi : Himachal
3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
Which of the above pairs are
correctly matched?
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(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. A
74. Consider the following
liquid assets :
1. Demand deposits with the banks
2. Time deposits with the banks
3. Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets
in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(A) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2 (B) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
(C) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 (D) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
Ans. D
75. In the context of Indian
economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to
(A) borrowing by scheduled banks from
the RBI
(B) lending by commercial banks to
industry and trade
(C) purchase and sale of government
securities by the RBI
(D) None of the above
Ans. C
76. Priority Sector Lending
by Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to
(A) agriculture
(B) micro and small enterprises
(C) weaker sections
(D) All of the above
Ans. D
77. Which one among the
following industries is the maximum consumer of water
in India?
(A) Engineering (B) Paper and pulp
(C) Textiles (D) Thermal power
Ans. D
78. To obtain full benefits
of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(A) Promoting skill development
(B) Introducing more social security
schemes
(C) Reducing infant mortality rate
(D) Privatization of higher education
Ans. A
79. In the context of
cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called
Tribhanga’ has been a
favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today.
Which only of the following
statements beast describes this pose?
(A) One leg is bent and the body is
slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(B) Facial expressions, hand gestures
and make – up are combined to symbolize certain
epic or
historic characters
(C) Movements of body, face and hands
are used to express oneself or to tell s story
(D) A little smile, slightly curved
waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to
express the
feelings of love or eroticism
Ans. A
80. Annie Besant was
1. responsible for starting the Home
Rule Movement
2. the founder of the Theosophical
Society
3. once the President of the Indian
National Congress
Select the correct statement,
statements using the codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
81. The Ilbert Bill
controversy was related to the
(A) imposition of certain restrictions
to carry arms by the Indians
(B) imposition of restriction on
newspapers and magazines published in Indian
languages
(C) removal of disqualifications
imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the
trial of the Europeans
(D) removal of a duty on imported
cotton cloth
Ans. C
82. A rise in general level
of prices may be caused by
1. an increase in the money supply
2. a decrease in the aggregate level
of output
3. an increase in the effective
demand
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
83. Which one of the
following groups of items is included in India’s foreign –
exchange reserves?
(A) Foreign–currency assets Special
drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from for countries
(B) Foreign–currency assets, gold
holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(C) Foreign–Currency assets, loans
from the World Bank and SDRs
(D) Foreign–currency assets, holdings
of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Ans. B
84. Which one of the
following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
(A) Repayment of public debt
(B) Borrowing from the public finance
a budget deficit
(C) Borrowing from banks finance a
budget deficit
(D) Creating new money to finance a
budget deficit
Ans. D
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85. Supply of money remaining
the same when there is an increase in demand for
money, there will be
(A) a fall in the level of prices
(B) an increase in the rate of
interest
(C) a decrease in the rate interest
(D) an increase in the level of
income and employment
Ans. B
86. Fruits stored in a cold
chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(A) exposure to sunlight is prevented
(B) concentration of carbon dioxide
in the environment is increased
(C) rate of respiration is decreased
(D) there is an increase in humidity
Ans. C
87. Consider the following
fauna of India :
1. Gharial 2. Leatherback turtle 3.
Swamp deer
Which of the above is / are
endangered?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None
Ans. C
88. Ball bearings are used in
bicycles, cars, etc., because
(A) the actual area of contact
between the wheel and axle is increased
(B) the effective area of contact
between the wheel and axle is increased
(C) the effective area of contact
between the wheel and axle is reduced
(D) None of the above statements is
correct
Ans. C
89. Consider the following
phenomena
1. Size of the sum at dusk
2. Colure of the sun at dawn
3. Moon being visible at dawn
4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical
illusions?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 3, 4 and 5
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 5
Ans. C
90. Rainbow is produced when
sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the
following physical phenomena
are responsible for this?
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
91. Many transplanted
seedlings do not grow because
(A) the new soil does not contain
favourable minerals
(B) most of the root hairs grip the
new soil to hard
(C) most of the root hairs are lost
during transplantation
(D) leaves get damaged during
transplantation
Ans. C
92. Economic growth in
country X will necessarily have to occur if
(A) there is technical progress in
the world economy
(B) there is population growth in X
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(C) there is capital formation in X
(D) the volume of trade grows in the
world economy
Ans. C
93. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for
the generation of energy.
2. Viruses can be cultured in any
synthetic medium.
3. Viruses are transmitted from one
organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
94. Which of the following
leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to
inhibit water loss?
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1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
95. The known forces of
natures can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity,
electromagnetism, week
nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to
them, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(A) Gravity is the strongest of the
four.
(B) Electromagnetism acts only on
particles with an electric charge.
(C) Weak nuclear force causes
radioactivity
(D) Strong nuclear force holds
protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom.
Ans. A
96. The efforts to detect the
existence of Higgs boson particle have become
frequent news in the recent
past. What is/are the importance/importances of
discovering this particle?
1. It will enable us to understand as
to why elementary particles have mass.
2. It will enable us in the near
future to develop the technology of transferring matter
from one point to another without
traversing the physical space between them.
3. It will enable us to create better
fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
97. Mycorrhizal biotechnology
has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites
because mycorrhiza enables
the plants to
1. resist drought and increase absorptive
area
2. tolerate extremes of pH
3. resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
98. Who among the following
constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4
only
(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. B
99. The national income of a
country in a given period is equal to the
(A) total value of goods services
produced by nationals
(B) sum of total consumption
investment expenditure
(C) sum of personal income of individuals
(D) money value of final goods
services produced
Ans. A
100. Which of the following
grants direct credit assistance to the households?
1. Regional Rural Banks
2. National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development
3. Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using codes
given below.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
*
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